Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

To a flat Earther, what's wrong with the idea that gravity is simply a force inherent to space which operates only in one dimension? Why do they go further and try to deny gravity rather than just saying it's different than physicists claim?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

How do I write a character’s physical description without it feeling unnatural and clunky? I’m able to describe their hair and body relatively easily because my writing puts emphasis on small movements and fidgeting, but I can’t describe faces.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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